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    • RAKCON M.Sc. Nursing -Admission Notice
    • RSSB, Jaipur, Recruitment Notification – Contractual JMLT Posts (NHM) 2025
    • "National Institute of Homoeopathy (NIH), Delhi – Recruitment Notification
    • AIIMS New Delhi Group-A Recruitment Examination 2025: Complete Guide
    • AIIMS MCH Recruitment 2025: Creation for New Non-Faculty posts in Maternal
    • AIIMS Guwahati Recruitment 2025 II Tutor/Clinical Instructor Vacancies
    • ECHS Bangalore Recruitment 2025: Apply for Medical & Non-Medical Govt Jobs
    • Apply Now! Rajasthan NHM & Medical Society Jobs 2025 – Full Details Here
    • Nursing Officer Vacancy at NEIGRIHMS, Shillong – Apply Online
    • KGMU Recruitment 2025 – Apply Online for Nursing Officer .
    • AIIMS DELHI Recruitment-Assistant Professor/Nursing Tutor-Application form
    • AIIMS Nursing Admissions 2025 (B.Sc. & M.Sc. Nursing) –Complete Guide
    • Nursing Officer Recruitment 2025 at GMCH Chandigarh: Apply Now.
  • Answer Key
    • Download Memory-Based Answer Key of NORCET-8 (12.04.2025)
    • 📝 Download RRB Paramedical Answer Key 2025 – Direct Link & Complete Guide
  • Results
    • SGPGI LUCKNOW
    • AIIMS CRE-2024 Recruitment Results – Check Your Qualification Status Now!
    • DSSSB Nursing Officer Recruitment 2024-25: Check Your Score & Shortlist
  • Exam Syllabus
    • M.Sc. Nursing 2nd Year
    • B.Sc. Nursing Syllabus
  • Previous Year Exam Paper
    • #AIIMS_NORCET 2021 PAPER
  • Admit card
    • RRB Para-Medical CBT Exam 2025: Official Notification, and Exam Schedule.
    • Nursing Officer Recruitment 2025 – Admit Card & Exam Details II
    • All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) Staff Nurse – Exam Date, Admit Card.
    • Download RRB Paramedical Admit Card 2025 –Direct Link, Steps & Exam Detail
  • Notes of subject
    • Pediatric Nursing
      • Croup Syndrome: Overview with Interactive Quiz Session
      • Craniosynostosis and Its Types
      • Head Circumference Measurement and Growth Pattern
      • Cystic Fibrosis
      • Bronchiolitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
      • Pediatric Nervous System
        • Hydrocephalus with interactive Quiz session
      • Pediatric GIT
        • Hirschsprung Disease NCLEX Questions | AIIMS NORCET Nursing Quiz with Answe
      • "Hypothermia in Neonates II NCLEX Questions II AIIMS NORCET Nursing Quiz
      • Phototherapy for Neonatal Jaundice – Effective Treatment & Benefits Explain
      • Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis: Early Diagnosis and Effective Treatment.
      • Routine Newborn Care: Expert Tips & Best Practices for a Healthy Baby
      • Celiac Disease: A Leading Cause of Chronic Diarrhea in Children
      • Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC):A Proven Method for Preterm and Low Birth Weight
      • "Neural Tube Defects (NTD) MCQs with Answers & Rationales
      • Cerebral Palsy with interactive quiz session
      • "Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF):NCLEX-RN & AIIMS NORCET-8 MCQs
      • Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
      • Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF) II Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) II
      • Neonatal Infections Explained: Causes, Signs, Treatment & Nursing Tips
    • OBSTETRIC & GYNECOLOGY
      • MULTIPLE PREGNANCY
  • Guide to Online Form Filling
  • AIIMS M.Sc. Exam Paper
    • M.Sc. Nursing 1st Year Exam Paper
  • AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing Exam Paper
  • Model Paper
    • 1. Medical Surgical Nursing
      • Nervous System Quiz Session
    • 2. Obstetric & Gynecology
    • 3. Pediatric Nursing
      • "100-Question Pediatric Nursing Challenge – Rank & Learn!"
      • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-2)
      • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-3)
      • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-4))
    • 4. Anatomy & Physiology
    • 5. Community Health Nursing
    • 6. Psychiatric nursing
    • 7. Nutrition and Biochemistry
    • 8. Research & management
    • 9.Download AIIMS NORCET 8 Model Paper 2025 | Free PDF & Answer Key
    • NORCET 2025 Model Test – Test Yourself and crack the exam
Nursing Advance
  • Home
  • Privacy Policy
  • Contact Us
  • About Us
  • Terms and conditions
  • Latest Nursing Job
    • NORCET-8 SUFDURJUNG HOSPITAL
    • NORCET-8 CNCI, KOLKATA
    • DSSSB Recruitment
    • #AIIMS_Goarakhpur_Recruitment
    • RAKCON M.Sc. Nursing -Admission Notice
    • RSSB, Jaipur, Recruitment Notification – Contractual JMLT Posts (NHM) 2025
    • "National Institute of Homoeopathy (NIH), Delhi – Recruitment Notification
    • AIIMS New Delhi Group-A Recruitment Examination 2025: Complete Guide
    • AIIMS MCH Recruitment 2025: Creation for New Non-Faculty posts in Maternal
    • AIIMS Guwahati Recruitment 2025 II Tutor/Clinical Instructor Vacancies
    • ECHS Bangalore Recruitment 2025: Apply for Medical & Non-Medical Govt Jobs
    • Apply Now! Rajasthan NHM & Medical Society Jobs 2025 – Full Details Here
    • Nursing Officer Vacancy at NEIGRIHMS, Shillong – Apply Online
    • KGMU Recruitment 2025 – Apply Online for Nursing Officer .
    • AIIMS DELHI Recruitment-Assistant Professor/Nursing Tutor-Application form
    • AIIMS Nursing Admissions 2025 (B.Sc. & M.Sc. Nursing) –Complete Guide
    • Nursing Officer Recruitment 2025 at GMCH Chandigarh: Apply Now.
  • Answer Key
    • Download Memory-Based Answer Key of NORCET-8 (12.04.2025)
    • 📝 Download RRB Paramedical Answer Key 2025 – Direct Link & Complete Guide
  • Results
    • SGPGI LUCKNOW
    • AIIMS CRE-2024 Recruitment Results – Check Your Qualification Status Now!
    • DSSSB Nursing Officer Recruitment 2024-25: Check Your Score & Shortlist
  • Exam Syllabus
    • M.Sc. Nursing 2nd Year
    • B.Sc. Nursing Syllabus
  • Previous Year Exam Paper
    • #AIIMS_NORCET 2021 PAPER
  • Admit card
    • RRB Para-Medical CBT Exam 2025: Official Notification, and Exam Schedule.
    • Nursing Officer Recruitment 2025 – Admit Card & Exam Details II
    • All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) Staff Nurse – Exam Date, Admit Card.
    • Download RRB Paramedical Admit Card 2025 –Direct Link, Steps & Exam Detail
  • Notes of subject
    • Pediatric Nursing
      • Croup Syndrome: Overview with Interactive Quiz Session
      • Craniosynostosis and Its Types
      • Head Circumference Measurement and Growth Pattern
      • Cystic Fibrosis
      • Bronchiolitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
      • Pediatric Nervous System
        • Hydrocephalus with interactive Quiz session
      • Pediatric GIT
        • Hirschsprung Disease NCLEX Questions | AIIMS NORCET Nursing Quiz with Answe
      • "Hypothermia in Neonates II NCLEX Questions II AIIMS NORCET Nursing Quiz
      • Phototherapy for Neonatal Jaundice – Effective Treatment & Benefits Explain
      • Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis: Early Diagnosis and Effective Treatment.
      • Routine Newborn Care: Expert Tips & Best Practices for a Healthy Baby
      • Celiac Disease: A Leading Cause of Chronic Diarrhea in Children
      • Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC):A Proven Method for Preterm and Low Birth Weight
      • "Neural Tube Defects (NTD) MCQs with Answers & Rationales
      • Cerebral Palsy with interactive quiz session
      • "Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF):NCLEX-RN & AIIMS NORCET-8 MCQs
      • Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
      • Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF) II Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) II
      • Neonatal Infections Explained: Causes, Signs, Treatment & Nursing Tips
    • OBSTETRIC & GYNECOLOGY
      • MULTIPLE PREGNANCY
  • Guide to Online Form Filling
  • AIIMS M.Sc. Exam Paper
    • M.Sc. Nursing 1st Year Exam Paper
  • AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing Exam Paper
  • Model Paper
    • 1. Medical Surgical Nursing
      • Nervous System Quiz Session
    • 2. Obstetric & Gynecology
    • 3. Pediatric Nursing
      • "100-Question Pediatric Nursing Challenge – Rank & Learn!"
      • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-2)
      • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-3)
      • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-4))
    • 4. Anatomy & Physiology
    • 5. Community Health Nursing
    • 6. Psychiatric nursing
    • 7. Nutrition and Biochemistry
    • 8. Research & management
    • 9.Download AIIMS NORCET 8 Model Paper 2025 | Free PDF & Answer Key
    • NORCET 2025 Model Test – Test Yourself and crack the exam
  • More
    • Home
    • Privacy Policy
    • Contact Us
    • About Us
    • Terms and conditions
    • Latest Nursing Job
      • NORCET-8 SUFDURJUNG HOSPITAL
      • NORCET-8 CNCI, KOLKATA
      • DSSSB Recruitment
      • #AIIMS_Goarakhpur_Recruitment
      • RAKCON M.Sc. Nursing -Admission Notice
      • RSSB, Jaipur, Recruitment Notification – Contractual JMLT Posts (NHM) 2025
      • "National Institute of Homoeopathy (NIH), Delhi – Recruitment Notification
      • AIIMS New Delhi Group-A Recruitment Examination 2025: Complete Guide
      • AIIMS MCH Recruitment 2025: Creation for New Non-Faculty posts in Maternal
      • AIIMS Guwahati Recruitment 2025 II Tutor/Clinical Instructor Vacancies
      • ECHS Bangalore Recruitment 2025: Apply for Medical & Non-Medical Govt Jobs
      • Apply Now! Rajasthan NHM & Medical Society Jobs 2025 – Full Details Here
      • Nursing Officer Vacancy at NEIGRIHMS, Shillong – Apply Online
      • KGMU Recruitment 2025 – Apply Online for Nursing Officer .
      • AIIMS DELHI Recruitment-Assistant Professor/Nursing Tutor-Application form
      • AIIMS Nursing Admissions 2025 (B.Sc. & M.Sc. Nursing) –Complete Guide
      • Nursing Officer Recruitment 2025 at GMCH Chandigarh: Apply Now.
    • Answer Key
      • Download Memory-Based Answer Key of NORCET-8 (12.04.2025)
      • 📝 Download RRB Paramedical Answer Key 2025 – Direct Link & Complete Guide
    • Results
      • SGPGI LUCKNOW
      • AIIMS CRE-2024 Recruitment Results – Check Your Qualification Status Now!
      • DSSSB Nursing Officer Recruitment 2024-25: Check Your Score & Shortlist
    • Exam Syllabus
      • M.Sc. Nursing 2nd Year
      • B.Sc. Nursing Syllabus
    • Previous Year Exam Paper
      • #AIIMS_NORCET 2021 PAPER
    • Admit card
      • RRB Para-Medical CBT Exam 2025: Official Notification, and Exam Schedule.
      • Nursing Officer Recruitment 2025 – Admit Card & Exam Details II
      • All India Institute of Ayurveda (AIIA) Staff Nurse – Exam Date, Admit Card.
      • Download RRB Paramedical Admit Card 2025 –Direct Link, Steps & Exam Detail
    • Notes of subject
      • Pediatric Nursing
        • Croup Syndrome: Overview with Interactive Quiz Session
        • Craniosynostosis and Its Types
        • Head Circumference Measurement and Growth Pattern
        • Cystic Fibrosis
        • Bronchiolitis: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
        • Pediatric Nervous System
          • Hydrocephalus with interactive Quiz session
        • Pediatric GIT
          • Hirschsprung Disease NCLEX Questions | AIIMS NORCET Nursing Quiz with Answe
        • "Hypothermia in Neonates II NCLEX Questions II AIIMS NORCET Nursing Quiz
        • Phototherapy for Neonatal Jaundice – Effective Treatment & Benefits Explain
        • Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis: Early Diagnosis and Effective Treatment.
        • Routine Newborn Care: Expert Tips & Best Practices for a Healthy Baby
        • Celiac Disease: A Leading Cause of Chronic Diarrhea in Children
        • Kangaroo Mother Care (KMC):A Proven Method for Preterm and Low Birth Weight
        • "Neural Tube Defects (NTD) MCQs with Answers & Rationales
        • Cerebral Palsy with interactive quiz session
        • "Tracheoesophageal Fistula (TEF):NCLEX-RN & AIIMS NORCET-8 MCQs
        • Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate: Causes, Diagnosis, and Management
        • Congestive Cardiac Failure (CCF) II Congestive Heart Failure (CHF) II
        • Neonatal Infections Explained: Causes, Signs, Treatment & Nursing Tips
      • OBSTETRIC & GYNECOLOGY
        • MULTIPLE PREGNANCY
    • Guide to Online Form Filling
    • AIIMS M.Sc. Exam Paper
      • M.Sc. Nursing 1st Year Exam Paper
    • AIIMS B.Sc. Nursing Exam Paper
    • Model Paper
      • 1. Medical Surgical Nursing
        • Nervous System Quiz Session
      • 2. Obstetric & Gynecology
      • 3. Pediatric Nursing
        • "100-Question Pediatric Nursing Challenge – Rank & Learn!"
        • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-2)
        • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-3)
        • Pediatric Nursing Quiz – 100 MCQs for NORCET-8 Preparation (PART-4))
      • 4. Anatomy & Physiology
      • 5. Community Health Nursing
      • 6. Psychiatric nursing
      • 7. Nutrition and Biochemistry
      • 8. Research & management
      • 9.Download AIIMS NORCET 8 Model Paper 2025 | Free PDF & Answer Key
      • NORCET 2025 Model Test – Test Yourself and crack the exam

<script async src="https://pagead2.googlesyndication.com/pagead/js/adsbygoogle.js?client=ca-pub-2672631748033423"

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1.CRE EXAM ANSWER KEY

You can download AIIMS CRE 2025 memory-based questions with answers from our website. 

The All India Institute of Medical Sciences (AIIMS) was conducting the Common Recruitment Examination (CRE) 2025 to fill 4,576 Group B and C positions. The examination was scheduled on 26 february 2025.

AIIMS CRE 2025 Memory-Based Questions with Answers

Q1. According to NACO 2021, what does a positive HIV test indicate?

  1. HIV infection

  2. AIDS diagnosis

  3. Need for ART initiation

  4. All of the above

Answer: A) HIV infection

Q2. What is the primary target of HIV in the human body?

  1. Red blood cells

  2. CD4 T lymphocytes

  3. Platelets

  4. Neurons

Answer: B) CD4 T lymphocytes

Q3. What is the window period of HIV infection?

  1. 2-4 weeks

  2. 1-3 months

  3. 6-12 months

  4. More than a year

Answer: B) 1-3 months

Q4. Which test is used to monitor ART treatment efficacy in HIV-positive patients?

  1. CD4 count

  2. Viral load test

  3. ELISA

  4. Western Blot

Answer: B) Viral load test

Q5. Which drug is used for secondary postnatal prophylaxis in neonates born to HIV-positive mothers?

  1. Nevirapine

  2. Zidovudine

  3.  Lopinavir

  4. Tenofovir

Answer: A) Nevirapine

Q6. Where should ART be initiated for an HIV-positive patient?

  1. Primary healthcare centers

  2. Government hospitals

  3. ART clinics

  4. Private clinics

Answer: C) ART clinics

Q7. Which anti-tubercular drug has a significant interaction with ART?

  1. Rifampicin

  2. Isoniazid

  3. Ethambutol

  4. Pyrazinamide

Answer: A) Rifampicin

Q8. How long should PEP be taken after a needle-stick injury?

  1. 7 days

  2. 14 days

  3. 28 days

  4. 3 months

Answer: C) 28 days

Q9. What is a key principle of HIV counseling and testing (HCT)?

  1. Informed consent

  2. Mandatory testing

  3. Confidentiality is optional

  4. Only healthcare workers should get tested

Answer: A) Informed consent

Q10. What is the recommended PEP regimen according to NACO?

  1. Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Efavirenz

  2. Zidovudine + Lamivudine + Lopinavir

  3. Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Lopinavir

  4. Zidovudine + Efavirenz + Nevirapine

Answer: C) Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Lopinavir

Q11. Which ART drug is known to cause nephrotoxicity?

  1. Tenofovir

  2. Efavirenz

  3. Zidovudine

  4. Nevirapine

Answer: A) Tenofovir

Q12.What is the recommended infant feeding practice for an HIV-positive mother to prevent transmission?

A) Exclusive breastfeeding for six months

B) Formula feeding to avoid HIV transmission

C) Mixed feeding with formula and breast milk

D) Breastfeeding only if the mother is on ART

Answer: B) Formula feeding to avoid HIV transmission                                                    '                                                           

Q13. A pregnant patient with HIV has a viral load exceeding 400 copies/mL. What is the safest delivery

 method?

A) Vaginal delivery

B) Emergency cesarean section

C) Elective cesarean section before labor

D) Induced labor at term

Answer: C) Elective cesarean section before labor

Q14. What is an essential aspect of postnatal care for a newborn of an HIV-positive mother?
A) Skin-to-skin contact for bonding
B) Immediate initiation of antiretroviral prophylaxis
C) Exclusive breastfeeding
D) Delayed cord clamping
Answer: B) Immediate initiation of antiretroviral prophylaxis

Q15. During labor, what measures should be taken to minimize HIV transmission to the baby?
A) Early rupture of membranes
B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine
C) Routine episiotomy
D) Use of invasive fetal monitoring
Answer: B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine

Q16.What is the main reason breastfeeding is discouraged in HIV-positive mothers?
A) Breastfeeding can increase the risk of HIV transmission
B) Breastfeeding weakens the immune system
C) HIV medications make breastfeeding ineffective
D) Formula feeding is nutritionally superior
Answer: A) Breastfeeding can increase the risk of HIV transmission

Q17. Which postpartum intervention is critical for an infant born to an HIV-positive mother?
A) Administration of zidovudine syrup
B) Delayed first bath
C) Immediate discharge to home
D) Early initiation of mixed feeding
Answer: A) Administration of zidovudine syrup

Q18. A pregnant patient with HIV is in labor. What is the nurse's priority to reduce neonatal HIV transmission?
A) Encourage early rupture of membranes
B) Administer intravenous zidovudine
C) Perform routine episiotomy
D) Use vacuum extraction
Answer: B) Administer intravenous zidovudine

Q19. What delivery method is recommended for an HIV-positive pregnant patient with a high viral load?
A) Vaginal delivery
B) Elective cesarean section before labor
C) Water birth
D) Forceps-assisted delivery
Answer: B) Elective cesarean section before labor

Q20. Which intrapartum practice should be avoided to reduce perinatal HIV transmission?
A) Routine use of fetal scalp electrodes
B) Immediate rupture of membranes
C) Unnecessary vaginal procedures
D) Delayed cord clamping
Answer: C) Unnecessary vaginal procedures

Q21.Why is HAART therapy continued during pregnancy for an HIV-positive patient?
A) To cure maternal HIV
B) To prevent opportunistic infections
C) To reduce viral load and prevent transmission to the baby
D) To eliminate the need for cesarean delivery
Answer: C) To reduce viral load and prevent transmission to the baby

Q22.What is an essential part of intrapartum care for a pregnant patient with HIV?
A) Immediate artificial rupture of membranes
B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine
C) Routine use of forceps for delivery
D) Episiotomy for all deliveries
Answer: B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine

Q23. For an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what is the primary purpose of continuing HAART therapy during pregnancy?
A) To eliminate the virus completely
B) To prevent opportunistic infections
C) To reduce viral load and prevent mother-to-child transmission
D) To avoid the need for a cesarean section
Answer: C) To reduce viral load and prevent mother-to-child transmission

Q24. A pregnant patient with HIV has a viral load of 500 copies/mL. What is the recommended mode of delivery to minimize the risk of HIV transmission to the newborn?
A) Vaginal delivery
B) Elective cesarean section at 38 weeks
C) Water birth
D) Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
Answer: B) Elective cesarean section at 38 weeks

Q25.A nurse is counseling a pregnant patient with HIV about labor and delivery. What practice should be emphasized to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the baby?
A) Routine episiotomy
B) Avoidance of invasive fetal monitoring
C) Delayed administration of antiretroviral
D) Immediate cord clamping
Answer: B) Avoidance of invasive fetal monitoring

Q26. A nurse is providing care to an HIV-positive pregnant patient. What is the primary purpose of administering zidovudine during labor?
A) To treat maternal HIV infection
B) To reduce the risk of perinatal HIV transmission
C) To prevent maternal anemia
D) To ensure faster labor progress
Answer: B) To reduce the risk of perinatal HIV transmission

Q27.What is the main purpose of administering intravenous zidovudine to an HIV-positive pregnant patient during labor?
A) To prevent maternal-to-child transmission of HIV
B) To increase maternal immune function
C) To reduce the duration of labor
D) To avoid the need for a cesarean section
Answer: A) To prevent maternal-to-child transmission of HIV

Q28.In providing intrapartum care for an HIV-positive patient, what is a crucial nursing intervention?
A) Encouraging mixed feeding after birth
B) Administering intravenous zidovudine during labor
C) Performing early rupture of membranes
D) Using invasive fetal monitoring
Answer: B) Administering intravenous zidovudine during labor

Q29.A nurse is providing postpartum care to an HIV-positive mother. What should be included in the discharge teaching regarding infant care?
A) Breastfeeding is safe if the mother is on HAART
B) The infant should receive zidovudine for six weeks
C) Mixed feeding is recommended
D) The baby should not receive any antiretroviral medications
Answer: B) The infant should receive zidovudine for six weeks

Q30.During prenatal care, a patient with HIV is advised to continue HAART therapy. What is the main reason for this recommendation?
A) To prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV
B) To eliminate the HIV virus
C) To strengthen the baby’s immune system
D) To shorten the duration of pregnancy
Answer: A) To prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV

Q31.A pregnant patient with HIV is undergoing labor. What intervention should the nurse prioritize to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the baby?
A) Immediate artificial rupture of membranes
B) Administer intravenous zidovudine
C) Routine episiotomy
D) Delayed cord clamping
Answer: B) Administer intravenous zidovudine

Q32.What is an essential component of intrapartum care for a pregnant patient with HIV to minimize HIV transmission risks?
A) Use of invasive fetal monitoring
B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine
C) Routine forceps-assisted delivery
D) Early rupture of membranes
Answer: B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine

Q33. In caring for a newborn whose mother is HIV-positive, why is zidovudine administered to the baby after birth?
A) To boost the baby's immune system
B) To prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV
C) To promote faster weight gain
D) To prevent neonatal jaundice
Answer: B) To prevent mother-to-child transmission of HIV

Q34.In managing a pregnant patient with HIV, what is the main goal of continuing HAART therapy throughout the pregnancy?
A) To cure HIV infection
B) To prevent opportunistic infections
C) To reduce viral load and minimize transmission risk
D) To avoid the need for cesarean delivery
Answer: C) To reduce viral load and minimize transmission risk

Q35. What is the primary goal of administering zidovudine to a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother?
A) To prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission
B) To reduce neonatal jaundice
C) To promote weight gain
D) To boost the baby's immune system
Answer: A) To prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission

Q36.In a pregnant patient with HIV, what is an important consideration when using HAART therapy?
A) It should be stopped in the third trimester
B) It should only be taken if symptoms of HIV appear
C) It should be continued throughout pregnancy to reduce viral load
D) It should be replaced with alternative herbal treatments
Answer: C) It should be continued throughout pregnancy to reduce viral load

Q37.What is a critical component of postpartum care for a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother?
A) Exclusive breastfeeding
B) Administration of antiretroviral prophylaxis
C) Routine episiotomy
D) Delayed bathing for 24 hours
Answer: B) Administration of antiretroviral prophylaxis 

Q38.What is the primary reason for advising against breastfeeding in an HIV-positive mother?
A) Risk of transmitting HIV through breast milk
B) Lack of essential nutrients in breast milk
C) Reduced bonding between mother and baby
D) Higher chances of food allergies
Answer: A) Risk of transmitting HIV through breast milk

Q39.For a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother, what is the rationale behind administering zidovudine syrup postpartum?
A) To enhance brain development
B) To reduce the risk of HIV transmission
C) To promote faster digestion
D) To prevent dehydration
Answer: B) To reduce the risk of HIV transmission

Q40.For a pregnant patient with HIV, what is the main goal of administering HAART during pregnancy?
A) To increase maternal immunity
B) To eliminate HIV from the body
C) To reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the baby
D) To avoid the need for cesarean delivery
Answer: C) To reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the baby

Q41.In educating an HIV-positive pregnant patient about breastfeeding, what should the nurse advise?
A) Breastfeeding is safe with HAART therapy
B) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission
C) Breastfeeding should be limited to nighttime only
D) Breastfeeding can be done if the baby receives zidovudine
Answer: B) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission

Q42. A nurse is caring for a pregnant patient with HIV. What is an essential aspect of intrapartum care to minimize HIV transmission to the newborn?
A) Delayed cord clamping
B) Avoiding artificial rupture of membranes
C) Routine episiotomy
D) Administration of intravenous zidovudine
Answer: D) Administration of intravenous zidovudine

Q43.During prenatal care for a patient with HIV, what key intervention should the nurse prioritize to prevent mother-to-child transmission?
A) Encourage a high-protein diet
B) Ensure strict adherence to HAART therapy
C) Promote exclusive breastfeeding
D) Recommend early induction of labor
Answer: B) Ensure strict adherence to HAART therapy

Q44.What postpartum care is crucial for a newborn whose mother is HIV-positive?
A) Immediate vaccination against HIV
B) Administration of antiretroviral prophylaxis
C) Exclusive breastfeeding for six months
D) Skin-to-skin contact for extended periods
Answer: B) Administration of antiretroviral prophylaxis

Q45.A nurse is preparing a birth plan for an HIV-positive pregnant patient. What factor primarily influences the decision for a cesarean delivery?
A) Maternal preference
B) Viral load greater than 1,000 copies/mL
C) Gestational age less than 37 weeks
D) Presence of gestational diabetes
Answer: B) Viral load greater than 1,000 copies/mL

Q46.During labor, what is a key practice for an HIV-positive pregnant patient to reduce the risk of mother-to-child transmission?
A) Administer intravenous zidovudine
B) Perform early amniotomy
C) Delay delivery as long as possible
D) Avoid cesarean delivery at all costs
Answer: A) Administer intravenous zidovudine

Q47. What breastfeeding advice should be given to an HIV-positive mother postpartum?
A) Breastfeeding is safe with HAART therapy
B) Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended
C) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission
D) Breastfeeding should only be done for the first two months
Answer: C) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission

Q48.What is the primary consideration for the mode of delivery in an HIV-positive pregnant patient?
A) HIV viral load
B) Presence of gestational hypertension
C) History of previous pregnancies
D) Fetal weight
Answer: A) HIV viral load

Q49. In a pregnant patient with HIV, what is a critical consideration for breastfeeding postpartum?
A) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission
B) Breastfeeding should be encouraged to boost immunity
C) Breastfeeding should be exclusive for six months
D) Breastfeeding is safe with HAART therapy
Answer: A) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission

Q50.What breastfeeding advice is typically given to an HIV-positive mother after delivery?
A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission
B) Breastfeed exclusively for six months
C) Breastfeed only if the baby receives HAART
D) Breastfeed for at least one year
Answer: A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission

Q51. During prenatal care for an HIV-positive patient, what is an essential aspect of fetal monitoring?
A) Routine HIV testing for the fetus
B) Monitoring maternal viral load
C) Weekly ultrasounds
D) Measuring maternal weight gain
Answer: B) Monitoring maternal viral load

Q52.What is the primary consideration for delivery planning in an HIV-positive pregnant patient with a high viral load?
A) Planning for a vaginal delivery
B) Scheduling a cesarean section
C) Inducing labor at 36 weeks
D) Avoiding medical interventions
Answer: B) Scheduling a cesarean section

Q53. During labor for an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what is a key nursing intervention to reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the newborn?
A) Delayed cord clamping
B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine
C) Performing an episiotomy
D) Encouraging prolonged labor
Answer: B) Administration of intravenous zidovudine

Q54. For an HIV-positive pregnant patient, why is the administration of intravenous zidovudine recommended during labor?
A) To boost maternal immunity
B) To reduce viral load and transmission risk
C) To induce labor faster
D) To replace HAART therapy
Answer: B) To reduce viral load and transmission risk

Q55. What breastfeeding advice should a nurse provide to a postpartum patient who is HIV-positive?
A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission
B) Breastfeeding is safe with HAART therapy
C) Breastfeeding should only be done for two months
D) Exclusive breastfeeding is recommended
Answer: A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission

Q56. What is a key nursing intervention during labor for an HIV-positive pregnant patient to minimize the risk of transmitting HIV to the newborn?
A) Administer intravenous zidovudine
B) Perform a routine episiotomy
C) Delay pushing during labor
D) Encourage early rupture of membranes
Answer: A) Administer intravenous zidovudine

Q57. What breastfeeding advice is typically given to an HIV-positive mother?
A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission
B) Breastfeeding is safe with antiretroviral therapy
C) Breastfeeding should be exclusive for six months
D) Breastfeeding should be combined with formula feeding
Answer: A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission

Q58. What breastfeeding recommendation is given to HIV-positive mothers to minimize the risk to their infants?
A) Avoid breastfeeding entirely
B) Breastfeed only for three months
C) Breastfeed along with formula feeding
D) Breastfeed exclusively with HAART therapy
Answer: A) Avoid breastfeeding entirely

Q59. What is the primary reason for prescribing zidovudine to a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother?
A) To prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission
B) To boost the baby’s immune system
C) To improve weight gain
D) To prevent jaundice
Answer: A) To prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission

Q60.What is an important consideration in the intrapartum care of an HIV-positive pregnant patient?
A) Avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures
B) Encouraging prolonged labor
C) Using forceps delivery routinely
D) Delaying medical interventions
Answer: A) Avoiding unnecessary invasive procedures

Q61. Why is zidovudine administered to newborns born to HIV-positive mothers?
A) To reduce the risk of HIV transmission
B) To prevent dehydration
C) To increase birth weight
D) To improve sleep patterns
Answer: A) To reduce the risk of HIV transmission

Q62. During labor, what is the primary reason for administering intravenous zidovudine to an HIV-positive pregnant patient?
A) To reduce viral load and transmission risk
B) To induce labor faster
C) To boost maternal immunity
D) To replace HAART therapy
Answer: A) To reduce viral load and transmission risk

Q63. During prenatal consultations, what should a nurse emphasize to an HIV-positive pregnant patient about HAART therapy?
A) It reduces the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission
B) It can cure HIV
C) It should be stopped in the third trimester
D) It is only needed if symptoms appear
Answer: A) It reduces the risk of mother-to-child HIV transmission

Q64. In caring for a newborn whose mother is HIV-positive, why is zidovudine administered to the baby after birth?
A) To prevent HIV transmission
B) To promote weight gain
C) To improve digestion
D) To prevent jaundice
Answer: A) To prevent HIV transmission

Q65.In postpartum care, what advice should a nurse give to an HIV-positive mother regarding infant feeding?
A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission
B) Breastfeed exclusively for six months
C) Breastfeed only at night
D) Breastfeed with HAART therapy
Answer: A) Avoid breastfeeding to prevent HIV transmission

Q66. For an HIV-positive mother, why is breastfeeding generally discouraged?
A) It may cause nutritional deficiencies in the baby
B) HIV can be transmitted through breast milk
C) It increases the risk of neonatal hypoglycemia
D) Breastfeeding leads to delayed maternal recovery
Answer: B) HIV can be transmitted through breast milk

Q67. During prenatal care for an HIV-positive patient, why is the continuation of HAART therapy crucial?
A) It prevents maternal complications
B) It reduces the risk of mother-to-child transmission
C) It enhances fetal growth
D) It eliminates HIV from the maternal bloodstream
Answer: B) It reduces the risk of mother-to-child transmission

Q68.What is a critical consideration when planning the delivery of a baby for an HIV-positive pregnant patient?
A) Maternal viral load
B) Gestational age
C) Maternal nutritional status
D) Family history of HIV
Answer: A) Maternal viral load

Q69.What is the primary goal of HAART therapy during pregnancy for an HIV-positive patient?
A) To improve maternal immunity
B) To reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the baby
C) To eliminate HIV from the mother’s body
D) To enhance fetal lung maturity
Answer: B) To reduce the risk of transmitting HIV to the baby

Q60. In planning the delivery of a baby for an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what factor primarily influences the decision for a cesarean section?
A) Maternal preference
B) HIV viral load greater than 1,000 copies/mL
C) Presence of gestational diabetes
D) Maternal age
Answer: B) HIV viral load greater than 1,000 copies/mL

Q61. In caring for a newborn born to an HIV-positive mother, why is immediate administration of zidovudine recommended?
A) To prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission
B) To enhance the baby’s immune system
C) To improve fetal circulation
D) To ensure proper weight gain
Answer: A) To prevent mother-to-child HIV transmission

Q62. A pregnant woman with HIV is advised to start HAART therapy. What is the primary goal of this treatment during pregnancy?
A) To cure HIV
B) To reduce maternal viral load and transmission risk
C) To shorten the duration of labor
D) To prevent preterm labor
Answer: B) To reduce maternal viral load and transmission risk

Q63. In educating an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what should the nurse emphasize about breastfeeding?
A) Breastfeeding is recommended for six months
B) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission
C) Breastfeeding is safe with HAART therapy
D) Breastfeeding should be combined with formula feeding
Answer: B) Breastfeeding should be avoided to prevent HIV transmission

Q64. In educating a pregnant patient with HIV, what should the nurse emphasize about the use of HAART therapy during pregnancy?
A) It is optional unless symptoms appear
B) It is crucial to prevent HIV transmission to the baby
C) It should be discontinued in the third trimester
D) It should only be taken during labor
Answer: B) It is crucial to prevent HIV transmission to the baby

Q65. In planning the delivery for an HIV-positive pregnant patient, what factor primarily influences the decision for a cesarean section?
A) Maternal nutritional status
B) Maternal viral load
C) History of multiple pregnancies
D) Presence of anemia
Answer: B) Maternal viral load

Q66. In providing prenatal care for an HIV-positive patient, what is the primary goal of HAART therapy?
A) To prevent maternal complications
B) To reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the baby
C) To ensure fetal lung maturity
D) To prevent postpartum hemorrhage
Answer: B) To reduce the risk of HIV transmission to the baby

Q67. What is the main goal of administering intravenous zidovudine to an HIV-positive pregnant patient during labor?
A) To reduce maternal pain
B) To prevent maternal complications
C) To reduce viral load and prevent HIV transmission
D) To increase fetal movement
Answer: C) To reduce viral load and prevent HIV transmission

Q68. For an HIV-positive mother, what is the primary reason to advise against breastfeeding?
A) It may cause allergies in the baby
B) HIV can be transmitted through breast milk
C) It leads to maternal nutritional deficiencies
D) It delays postpartum recovery
Answer: B) HIV can be transmitted through breast milk

Q69.Which Anti-TB medicine affects ART treatment?
A) Rifampicin
B) Pyrazinamide
C) Ethambutol
D) Isoniazid
Answer: A) Rifampicin

Q70.What does the CD4 count indicate in an HIV-positive patient?
A) Kidney function
B) Liver function
C) Immune system strength
D) Viral load
Answer: C) Immune system strength

Q71.What is the most common opportunistic infection in HIV patients?
A) Tuberculosis
B) Influenza
C) Hepatitis B
D) Malaria
Answer: A) Tuberculosis

Q72.BCG vaccine is obtained from which organism?
A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B) Mycobacterium leprae
C) Mycobacterium bovis
D) Mycobacterium avium
Answer: C) Mycobacterium bovis

Q73. Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) stain is used for all except:
A) Tuberculosis
B) Sarcoidosis
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Leprosy
Answer: C) Staphylococcus aureus

Q74. HIV is primarily transmitted through:
A) Sexual contact
B) Mother to fetus
C) Used syringes
D) All of the above
Answer: D) All of the above

Q75. What does U=U in HIV stand for?
A) Uninfected = Unaffected
B) Undetectable = Untransmittable
C) Unstable = Uncontrollable
D) Universal = Unavoidable
Answer: B) Undetectable = Untransmittable

Q76.When do we test for HIV infection after PEP completion?
A) Immediately after PEP completion
B) 2 weeks after PEP completion
C) 4 weeks after PEP completion
D) 3 months after PEP completion
Answer: C) 4 weeks after PEP completion

Q77.What test is done for HIV detection in a 6-week-old infant?
A) ELISA
B) Western Blot
C) HIV DNA PCR
D) CD4 count
Answer: C) HIV DNA PCR

Q78.What ART is given to a 6-week-old infant?
A) Zidovudine + Nevirapine
B) Efavirenz + Lopinavir
C) Tenofovir + Lamivudine
D) Ritonavir + Atazanavir
Answer: A) Zidovudine + Nevirapine

Q79.Which state in India speaks the most languages?
A) Uttar Pradesh
B) Maharashtra
C) Arunachal Pradesh
D) Tamil Nadu
Answer: C) Arunachal Pradesh

Q80.HIV attacks which type of cell?
A) Red blood cells
B) Platelets
C) CD4 T cells
D) Neutrophils
Answer: C) CD4 T cells

Q81.What is the causative agent for chronic diarrhoea in HIV infection?
A) Cryptosporidium
B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C) Candida
D) Pneumocystis jirovecii
Answer: A) Cryptosporidium

Q82.Latent TB is diagnosed by:
A) Mantoux test
B) Chest X-ray
C) CBNAAT
D) Sputum microscopy
Answer: A) Mantoux test

Q83.What is the most specific test for HIV?
A) ELISA
B) Western Blot
C) HIV RNA PCR
D) Rapid test
Answer: C) HIV RNA PCR

Q84.What is the first-line detection test for HIV?
A) Western Blot
B) ELISA
C) HIV DNA PCR
D) CD4 count
Answer: B) ELISA

Q85.ART is started at which condition?
A) Immediately after HIV diagnosis
B) When CD4 count falls below 500
C) When viral load is undetectable
D) Only when symptoms appear
Answer: A) Immediately after HIV diagnosis

Q86.Which anti-TB medicine affects ART treatment?
A) Rifampicin
B) Pyrazinamide
C) Streptomycin
D) Isoniazid
Answer: A) Rifampicin

Q90.What are the first-line drugs of HIV treatment?
A) Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Efavirenz
B) Rifampicin + Isoniazid + Pyrazinamide
C) Zidovudine + Nevirapine + Lopinavir
D) Amoxicillin + Azithromycin + Ceftriaxone
Answer: A) Tenofovir + Lamivudine + Efavirenz

Q91.What is the screening test for HIV?
A) HIV RNA PCR
B) ELISA
C) Western Blot
D) CD4 count
Answer: B) ELISA

Q92.Vial used in (Under mentioned)

a. Blood collection for hematology tests
b. Urine sample collection
c. Microbiology culture
d. CSF analysis



Correct Answer: a. Blood collection for hematology tests

Instructions for Candidates:

  • These memory-based questions are collected from candidates who appeared for the AIIMS CRE 2025 exam.

  • This is not the official question paper; the actual paper may vary.

  • For the official answer key and response sheet, visit the AIIMS website: AIIMS Official Website

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